- Boeing 747-400 Questions Database -

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AIRCONDITIONING AND PRESSURIZATION

F1 01

a. Main deck zones A through E and upper deck

b. Main deck zones A through E, upper deck, and flight deck

c. Main deck zones A through E and flight deck

(a)

F1 02

a. Warms up the equipment cooling system prior to selecting NORM for flight

b. Manually reconfigures the equipment cooling system for flight in automatic reconfiguration fails

c. Opens the ground exhaust valve when the outside temperature is greater than 45°F (7°C)

(b)

F1 03

a. The zone requiring the coolest air supply

b. The zone requiring the warmest air supply

c. The warmest zone

(a)

F1 04

a. 85 degrees F (29 degrees C)

b. 93 degrees F (34 degrees C)

c. 65 degrees F (18 degrees C)

(a)

F1 05

a. The Passenger Temperature Selector in the ALTN position

b. The master trim air valve closed either manually or automatically

c. Both a and b

(c)

F1 06

a. With the FLT DECK Temperature Selector in AUTO

b. With the FLT DECK Temperature Selector in MAN, provided trim air is available

c. By moving the Passenger Temperature Selector toward W or C

d. Flight deck temperature connot be adjusted

(b)

F1 07

a. True

b. False

(b)

F1 08

a. Activates the Captain's underfloor heaters

b. Activates the Captain's and first officer's underfloor heaters

c. Directs warm air toward the Captain's feet

(a)

F1 09

a. Causes duct pressure, cabin altitude, cabin rate of change, landing altitude, and differential pressure to be displayed on primary EICAS

b. Displays amber MAN landing altitude annunciation

c. Permits manual selection of landing altitude

d. All the above

(d)

F1 10

a. Causes the EICAS advisory message OUTFLOW VLV L to be displayed

b. Bypasses automatic control for both outflow valves

c. Allows the left outflow valve to be positioned manually

d. Both a and c

(d)

F1 11

a. Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet

b. Cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 feet

c. Cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 feet

( )

F1 12

a. 10,000 feet

b. 9,500 feet

c. 11,000 feet

( c)

F1 13

a. Either or both positive cabin pressure relief valves open with the packs in high flow and pack 2 fails to shut down automatically

b. One of the negative relief valves has opened or a cargo door is unlatched

c. Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet

( a)

F1 14

a. True

b. False

( a)

F 1 15

Shoulder and foot heaters are provided, but operate in flight only.

a. True

b. False

( a )

F 1 16

Which of the following is true when the HI FLOW Switch is ON?

a. Pack air flow is controlled automatically

b. All operating packs provide high air flow

c. All recirculation fans are turned on

d. All recirculation fans are turned off

( b )

F 1 17

With the HI FLOW Switch OFF, which of the following is true?

a. Pack air flow is controlled artomatically

b. Packs operate only in normal flow

c. All recirculation fans are turned on

( a )

F 1 18

With both Recirculation Fan Switches ON and the air conditioning packs HI FLOW Switch off: a. All recirculation fans operate continuously

b. All packs operate in normal flow

c. Recirculation fan operation and pack air flow are controllled automatically

d. Both a and b

( c )

F 1 19

a. Pack controller A or B is automatically selected on alternating flights

b. The selected controller is the primary controller

c. The secondary controller is automatically selected in the event of a primary controller failure

d. All of the above

( d )

F 1 20

Which of the following is true regarding the Passenger Temperature Selector?

a. Sets the Master Temperature for all cabin zones in the AUTO range

b. Provides manual control of passenger zone temperatures in the ALTN position

c. Allows flight attendants to control passenger zone temperatures from the Cabin Temperature Panel in the ALTN position

d. All of the above

( a )

F 1 21

Recirculation fans augment cabin air ventilation allowing packs to operate at a reduced flow during all phases of flight.

a. True

b. False

( b )

F 1 22

Which of the following regarding failure of the selected pack controller is true?

a. With the Pack Control Selector in A or B, the Pack Control Selector must be manually set to the other controller in the event the operating controller fails

b. With the Pack Control Selector in NORM, A or B, control of the pack is automatically switched to the other pack controller

c. If the selected pack controller fails, the Pack Control Selector must be placed in the OFF position before the other controller can be selected

( b )

F 1 23

How is Master Temperature set?

a. By the cabin crew on the Cabin Temperature Panel

b. By maintenance personnel on the ground prior to flight

c. By the flight crew on the Flight Deck Temperature Selector, with the Flight Deck Temperature Selector in the AUTO range

d. By the flight crew using the Passenger Temperature Selector, with the Passenger Temperature Selector in the AUTO range

( d )

F 1 24

Duct pressure, cabin altitude and rate, landing altitude, and differential pressure are automatically displayed on the Primary EICAS under which of the following conditions?

a. Manual is selected for Landing Altitude, the engine synoptic display is selected, or the ECS synoptic is selected on the secondary EICAS

b. Cabin altitude or cabin differential pressure are in the caution or warning range

c. Either duct pressure is 11 psi or less

d. CABIN ALT AUTO, LANDING ALT, OUTFLOW VLV, or BLD DUCT LEAK EICAS messages are displayed

e. All of the above

( e )

F 1 25

What does selecting the Equipment Cooling Selector OVRD position do?

a. Manually reconfigures the airplane for flight if automatic reconfiguration fails

b. Overrides the automatic system to provide manual contorl

c. Provides cooling, using reverse airflow provided by differential pressure

( c )

Back to menu

AUTOFLIGHT

F 2 1

What Flight Director modes are activated by placing a Flight Director Switch ON while on the ground with no autopilots engaged?

a. V/S and HDG HOLD modes

b. V/S and HDG SEL modes

c. TO/GA roll and pitch modes

( c )

F 2 2

What occurs when the Autothrottle Switch is moved to OFF?

a. Autothrottle disconnects

b. Autothrottle can only be engaged in VNAV mode

c. Autothrottle can be engaged in any mode

( a )

F 2 3

Which modes are affected by the Bank Limit Selector?

a. All roll modes

b. Only HDG SEL mode

c. Only LOC and APP modes

( b )

F 2 4

What is accomplished by lifting the Autopilot Disengage Bar?

a. Previously selected autopilot is engaged

b. All autopilots disengage

c. Permits autopilots to be engaged

( c )

F 2 5

When can the command bars be displayed on the PFD during preflight?

a. When the FD Switch is ON or an autopilot is engaged

b. When the FD Switch is ON

c. When V NAV or L NAV is selected

( b )

F 2 6

What indicates a pitch or roll mode fault?

a. An amber line through pitch or roll annunciation

b. An amber line through FD annunciation of PFD

c. OFF Flag on PFD

( a )

F 2 7

During takeoff, above which speed will the autothrottle enter the throttle hold mode?

a. 65 knots

b. 80 knots

c. V2

( a )

F 2 8

What does the A/T HOLD mode accomplish?

a. Moves throttles to hold takeoff thrust

b. Moves throttles to hold selected speed

c. Thrust may be adjusted manually

( c )

F 2 9

What pitch mode is engaged by selecting an autopilot in Command with both Flight Director Switches OFF while in flight?

a. V/S

b. ALT

c. SPD

( a )

F 2 10

What is the indication of lateral or vertical nav mode engagement?

a. Annunciation on the PFD's

b. Annunciation on the PFD's and ND's

c. Centering of the command bars on both PFD's

( a )

F 2 11

When the Left Autopilot is in command and both flight directors are switched ON, what modes will the flight directors use?

a. Whatever modes are selceted for them independently

b. The Left FD will use the same modes as the A/P, and the other will use whatever is selected for it c. Both FD's will operate in current AFDS mode

( c )

F 2 12

What do the Flight Control Computers (FCC) use to command level-off when engaged in a VNAV pitch mode?

a. The MCP Altitude Window

b. The FMC's target altitude

c. Both a and b

( c )

F 2 13

In FLCH mode, where is the commanded airspeed displayed?

a. On PFD and Mode Control Panel

b. Reference Airspeed Bugs and ND

c. ND and FMS-CDU

( a )

F 2 14

When the go-around function of the TO/GA mode is engaged by a single push of the TO/GA switch, what is the autothrottle commanded to?

a. Commanded to climb thrust, THR REF mode

b. Commanded to IAS Mach Window speed, SPD mode

c. Commanded to maintain 2000 fpm climb, THR mode

( c )

F 2 15

When does the go-around function of the TO/GA mode arm for the AFDS and autothrottle system?

a. At glideslope capture

b. Flaps out of up

c. a or b, whichever occurs first

( c )

F 2 16

During a crosswind autoland, the autopilot starts runway alignment at approximately:

a. 50 ft

b. 1,000 ft

c. 500 ft

( c )

F 2 17

Is the runway alignment mode annunciated on the PFD's?

a. Yes

b. No

( b )

F 2 18

At what radio altitude does the autopilot start the landing flare?

a. 40 to 60 ft

b. 65 to 100 ft

c. Inner marker

( a )

F 2 19

What is the roll mode annunciation for a Go-Around?

a. TRK HOLD

b. HDG HOLD

c. TO/GA

( c )

F 2 20

What is the pitch mode annunciation for a Go-Around?

a. TO/GA

b. SPD

c. V NAV

( a )

F 2 21

What is the target vertical speed for a single push Go-Around?

a. 1,000 FPM

b. 2,000 FPM

c. 1,500 FPM

( b )

F 2 22

Above 400 feet radio altitude with LNAV and VNAV not armed, which action would change the TO/GA flight mode annunciations?

a. Select different roll and pitch modes

b. Select a VOR frequency

c. Push either TO/GA switch a second time

( a )

F 2 23

During an approach, when is the go-around mode inhibited?

a. 5 feet radio altitude plus 2 seconds

b. Middle marker plus 2 seconds

c. Inner marker plus 2 seconds

( a )

F 2 24

What do the autopilots control to track the localizer while in the rollout mode?

a. Rudder and nose wheel steering

b. Rudder and speedbrakes

c. Autobrakes

( a )

F 2 25

After an automatic landing, rollout guidance continues until:

a. The pilot applies manual braking

b. The pilot disengages the autopilots

c. The speedbrake lever is placed in the DOWN position

( b )

F 2 26

What does pushing down on the Autopilot Disengage Bar do?

a. Disengages autopilots, but permits autopilot re-engagement

b. Disengages autopilots and prevents re-engagement

c. Disengages autopilots only if a control wheel disengage switch is pushed at the same time

( b )

F 2 27

When are Flare and Rollout Modes available?

a. Manual Landing

b. Autoland

c. Both a and b

( b )

F 2 28

Below what altitude is disengaging the autopilot and turning off both Flight Directors the sole means for deactivating go-around?

a. 700 ft

b. 600 ft

c. 400 ft

( c )

F 2 29

How is the autothrottle normally disengaged after an automatic landing?

a. Autopilot mode selection

b. Automatically at touchdown

c. By selecting reverse thrust

( c )

F 2 30

In wings-level flight with both Flight Directors OFF, which roll mode is engaged by engaging the first autopilot in command?

a. LNAV

b. Heading Select

c. Heading Hold

( c )

F 2 31

Pushing the SPD switch while in FLCH will engage the A/T mode to the current airspeed or the FMC speed, whichever is higher.

a. True

b. False

( b )

F 2 32

In VNAV, pushing the THR Switch will not change the A/T mode.

a. True

b. False

( a )

F 2 33

What feature is initiated by pushing the alt selector knob within 50nm of the T/D with the MCP altitude window set at a lower alt?

a. DES DIR

b. DES NOW

c. Cruise Descent

( b )

F 2 34

A go-around can be accomplished with:

a. Single autopilot

b. FD only

c. Multi-autopilots

d. All of the above

( d )

F 2 35

What AFDS roll and pitch modes are used during windshear recovery?

a. TO/GA, V/S

b. TO/GA, TO/GA

c. HDG HOLD, V/S

( b )

F 2 36

A white LNAV annunciation in the PFD indicates:

a. LNAV is armed

b. LNAV is engaged

c. Cannot tell without reference to the LNAV switch

( a )

Back to menu

APU

F 3 1

What is the normal sequence of events when the APU Selector is positioned OFF?

a. The APU bleed air valve closes, the APU generators shed their electrical load, and a one minute shutdown cooling cycle commences

b. The APU air inlet door closes when N2 decelerates through 20%

c. Both a and b

( c )

F 3 2

What is (are) the minimum electrical power source(s) necessary for start and operation of the APU?

a. The APU battery only

b. The APU battery and the main battery

c. The APU battery and either ground handling bus

( b )

F 3 3

Which of the following is true regarding the APU shutdown cycle?

a. When the APU Selector is positioned OFF, the APU bleed isolation valve is commanded open. When the valve is sensed open,the APU generators automatically drop off line.

b. The APU Bleed Air Switch must be positioned OFF prior to positioning the APU selector OFF. The APU generators will drop of line automatically when N1 RPM drops below 95%

c. When the APU Selector is positioned OFF, the APU bleed air isolation valve is automatically commanded closed, the APU generators automatically drop off line, and the 60 second shutdown cooling cycle commences

( c )

F 3 4

The APU Selector is moved from OFF to START and released to ON. Which of the following is true regarding the automatic start sequence?

a. The APU starter is engaged any time the APU selector is positioned ON

b. The APU starter is automatically engaged when the fuel valve is sensed open

c. The APU starter will engage only if the air inlet door is sensed open

( c )

F 3 5

Which of the following is true regarding EICAS advisory message APU?

a. Turning the APU Selector to OFF resets the APU fault logic and the APU message will no longer be displayed. The APU may be restarted if the EICAS message APU is not redisplayed when the APU Selector is turned to ON.

b. The EICAS message APU indicates that the APU is unusable; no further attempt should be made to use the APU until maintenance clears the fault

c. If the APU continues to operate after the APU Selector is OFF, the APU may be shut down manually by pulling the APU Fire Switch

d. Both a and c

(d)

F 3 6

If the APU is running and the Battery Switch is selected OFF, which of the following occurs? a. Tha APU shuts down immediately, eliminating the 60 second cooldown cycle

b. The APU continutes to run normally

c. The APU completes the 60 second cooldown cycle then shuts down

d. The APU continutes to run, but both APU generators shed their electrical load

(a)

F 3 7

When using the APU as the bleed air source, how many air conditioning packs may be operated during engine start?

a. Three packs

b. Two packs

c. One pack

d. No packs can be operated during main engine start

(c)

F 3 8

Which statement is true regarding the APU?

a. Only one APU generator may be used during main engine start

b. The APU should not be used as source of bleed air and electrical power simultaneously

c. The APU provides sufficient output to supply electrical power for all normal loads plus sufficient bleed air to operate one air conditioning pack during engine start

(c)

F 3 9

The APU is available as a source of electrical power both inflight and on the ground.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 3 10

What is the maximum pressure altitude at which the APU may be used as a source of bleed air?

a. 45,100 feet

b. 20,000 feet

c. 15,000 feet

d. The APU may be used only on the ground

(c)

F 3 11

What is the maximum pressure altitude at which the APU may be operated in flight?

a. 45,100 feet

b. 20,000 feet

c. 15,000 feet

d. The APU may not be operated inflight

(b)

F 3 12

What is the APU fuel source?

a. Main tank #1

b. Main tank #2

c. The APU fuel tank

(b)

F 3 13

The APU starter will engage only after the APU air inlet door is open.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 3 14

When are the APU generator AVAIL lights illuminated?

a. N1 RPM is 95% or more

b. Both frequency and voltage are acceptable

c. The momentary action switches are pushed on

(b)

F 3 15

The VALVE light on the bottom half of the APU Bleed Isolation Valve switch is illuminated. What does this indicate?

a. The valve is open

b. The valve is closed

c. The valve position disagrees with the commanded position

(c)

F 3 16

What EICAS memo message is displayed when the APU N1 rpm is greater than 95% and the APU Selector is ON?

a. APU

b. APU RUNNING

c. APU OPERATING

(b)

F 3 17

When is the EICAS advisory message APU FUEL displayed?

a. Fuel pressure is low or fuel valve is closed

b. Fuel pressure is low and the APU fuel pump is commanded ON

c. Fuel quantity in main tank 2 is below 2,000 lbs.(900 Kgs)

d. The fuel valve position disagrees with the commanded position

e. Both b and d

(e)

F 3 18

What causes the EICAS message APU to be displayed?

a. The APU N1 RPM remains above 95% with the APU selector in the OFF position

b. The APU has shutdown due to a fault, and the APU selector is in the ON position

c. Both a and b

(c)

Back to menu

COMMUNICATIONS

F 4 1

How many radios or systems can be selected for transmission on an audio panel at one time? a. One

b. Two

c. Ten

(a)

F 4 2

Refer to page 09.10.03. What frequency is tuned?

a. 120.000

b. 121.150

c. 120.625

(a)

F 4 3

Refer to page 09.10.01. Which VOR receiver is selected?

a. Right ILS

b. Marker Receiver

c. Right VOR

(c)

F 4 4

Refer to page 09.10.01. With the VOR/ADF volume control pushed, what navigation audio would be heard?

a. Voice only

b. Both Voice and Range

c. Range only

(b)

F 4 5

What option does the first officer have when his Audio Panel has failed?

a. Share Captain's Audio Panel

b. Listen to the Captain's speaker if it is available

c. Use the Observer's Audio Panel

(c)

F 4 6

If the left HF, upper side band is selected on the left Radio Tuning Panel, what are the indications?

a. Left HF and AM indicators are illuminated

b. HF indicator is illuminated, AM indicator is extinguished

c. Left HF and offside turning indicators are illuminated

(b)

F 4 7

The left radio tuning panel has failed. Can the left HF sensitivity be adjusted?

a. Yes, it now reverts to the center radio tuning panel

b. Yes, it is still adjusted on the left radio tuning panel

c. No, the sensitivity control becomes inoperative with the panel failure

(b)

F 4 8

Which radios are normally associated with each radio tuning panel?

a.Left - VHF L and HF L;

b.Center - VHF C; Right - VHF R and HF R

c.Left - VHF L and HF R; Center - VHF C; Right - VHF R and HF L

d.Center - VHF C, Right and Left may choose any radio without preference being given

(a)

F 4 9

What stations can be connected through the flight interphone system?

a. All flight deck crew stations and the right body gear position

b. All flight deck crew stations and the nose gear position

c. All flight deck crew stations, landing gear positions and nose gear position

(b)

F 4 10

What switch combination must the flight deck select to communicate with the service interphone system when using the boom microphone?

a. Select FLT transmitter selector and service interphone switch in the off position

b. Select FLT transmitter selector and service interphone switch in the on position

c. Select CAB transmitter selector and service interphone switch in the off position

(b)

F 4 11

Can the flight deck communicate with the cabin interphone without using the interphone handset?

a. No

b. Yes

(b)

F 4 12

What does the " CALL " light on the L VHF transmitter selector mean?

a. The cabin is calling the flight deck

b. A call has been received by SELCAL on the left VHF

c. The ground crew is calling

(b)

F 4 13

What must the captain do to clear the "CALL" light on the center VHF with the left VHF transmitter selected?

a. It will go out automatically after 30 seconds

b. Press the center VHF transmitter selector switch

c. Select the R/T position of a push to talk switch

(b)

F 4 14

What occurs when the Cockpit Voice Recorder Test button is pushed?

a. An audible tone is transmitted

b. All four recorder channels are tested

c. The voice recouder tape is erased

(b)

F 4 15

To erase the cockpit voice recorder tape, what conditions must be met?

a. Press the erase switch on the ground, AC power on, and the parking brake set

b. Press the erase switch on the ground, DC power on, and the parking brake set

c. Press the erase switch anytime

(a)

Back to menu

ELECTRICAL

F 5 1

When is the EICAS advisory message ELEC DRIVE displayed?

a. The respective IDG has high oil temperature or low oil pressure

b. The respective IDG has disconnected

c. The generator control breaker has tripped

d. The respective IDG field has tripped

(a)

F 5 2

When will the Utility Power Switch OFF light illuminate?

a. When a utility or galley bus is loadshed

b. When a fault causes one of the utility or galley busses to be unpowered

c. When the Utility Power Switch is in the OFF position

d. Both b and c

(d)

F 5 3

When is the EICAS advisory message .DRIVE DISC displayed?

a. There is a high oil temperature condition in the IDG

b. The engines are shut down

c. The generator drive is disconnected

(c)

F 5 4

What is the normal power source for the AC Standby Bus?

a. AC Bus 4

b. DC Bus 3

c. AC Bus 3

(c)

F 5 5

The AC Bus Isolation Lights for AC Busses 1,2, and 3 will illuminate during a triple channel autoland.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 5 6

The respective Generator Control Switch must be ON and the IDG power quality acceptable for the IDG to provide AC power to its respective AC Bus.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 7

What does placing the Bus Tie Switch in the AUTO position do?

a. Closes the respective DC Isolation Relay

b. Enables automatic operation of the BTB

c. Both a and b

(c)

F 5 8

When is the EICAS advisory message ELEC BUS ISLN displayed?

a. The bus tie breaker is open

b. The affected bus is disconnected from the synchronous bus

c. Both a and b

(c)

F 5 9

With the airplane on the ground, AC power can be paralleled on the synchronous bus from two external power sources and/or both APU generators.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 5 10

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 11

The Captain's transfer bus is normally powered by which AC bus?

a. AC bus 3

b. AC bus 2

c. AC bus 2 serves as a backup power source

d. a and c

(a)

F 5 12

Flight critical equipment on the standby bus receives AC power from the standby inverter when AC bus 3 is unpowered and the Standby Power Selector is in the AUTO position.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 13

With the Standby Power Selector in the BAT position (ground only) and the Battery Switch ON, what is the electrical system configuration?

a. The main battery powers the standby bus

b. The main and APU battery chargers are disabled

c. The main battery will power the standby bus for 60 minutes

d. Both a and b

(d)

F 5 14

APU generator 1 will power the ground handling bus if both external power and APU power are available.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 5 15

The ground handling bus supplies power to which system(s)?

a. The fueling system

b. The cargo handling equipment and cargo compartment lights

c. The main and APU battery chargers

d. Both a and b

(d)

F 5 16

With the Standby Power Selector in AUTO and the standby bus powered from the standby inverter (assume Battery Switch ON), what EICAS message should be displayed and what are the associated limitations?

a. The EICAS message ELEC AC BUS 3 is displayed and there is no time limit

b. The EICAS message ELEC AC BUS 3 is displayed and there is a 30 minute time limit

c. THe EICAS messages ELEC AC BUS 1 and . BAT DISCH MAIN are displayed and there is a 30 minute time limit

d. No EICAS message are displayed

(d)

F 5 17

What occurs if available power is less than the demand?

a. The electrical load control units (ELCU) shed galley and galley and utility busses according to priority logic

b. No EICAS messages are diplayed during load shedding

c. The Utility Off Lights do not illuminate

d. All of the above

(d)

F 5 18

When is the EICAS advisory message ELEC UTIL BUS displayed?

a. A fault has occurred on the utility or galley bus and the bus is unpowered

b. The Utility Power Switch is OFF

c. Both a and b

(c)

F 5 19

The four main DC busses remain interconnected through the DC isolation relays if there is an AC bus or transformer/rectifier failure.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 20

Pushing a Bus Tie Switch OFF opens the associated DC isolation relay and the respective DC bus is powered by its respective AC bus and TR unit.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 21

The main hot battery bus and the APU hot battery bus are always connected to their respective batteries.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 22

The EICAS advisory message . BATTERY OFF is displayed when the main battery is discharging.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 5 23

When is the EICAS advisory message . BATTERY APU displayed?

a. The Battery Switch is OFF

b. The APU battery bus has a fault

c. The APU battery is discharging

(c)

F 5 24

What happens when the Battery Switch is pushed ON and no other power sources are connected?

a. The main and APU batteries are connected to their respective battery busses

b. All indicator and flight deck switches necessary for APU start are activated

c. Fire protection systems will not be available until external or APU generator power is available

d. Both a and b

(d)

F 5 25

Selecting AUTO on the Standby Power Selector, with the Battery Switch ON, activates the PRIMARY EICAS display which will display required caution and warning messages.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 5 26

What occurs when the Utility Power Switches are positioned ON?

a. The electrical load control units are enabled

b. The utility and galley busses are connected immediately

c. The utility and galley busses are connected when sufficient power is available

d. Both a and c

(d)

F 5 27

The AC Bus Isolation lights and EICAS advisory message ELEC BUS ISLN will be displayed during autoland.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 5 28

Which AC bus serves as the primary backup power source for the Captain's and First Officer's transfer busses?

a. AC Bus 2

b. AC Bus 3

c. AC Bus 1

d. None of the above

(c)

F 5 29

Which of the following statements is true when the left Utility Bus Switch has been pushed ON?

a. The Utility busses are normally powered by AC bus 2 and the galley busses are normally powered by AC bus 3. AC bus 1 serves as a backup source of power.

b. Utility bus 1 and galley bus 1 are powered by AC bus 1, utility bus 2 and galley bus 2 are powered from AC bus 2.

c. Utility bus 1 and utility bus 2 are powered by AC bus 1; galley bus 1 and galley bus 2 are powered by AC bus 2.

(b)

F 5 30

What conditions cause the EICAS advisory message ELEC UTIL BUS to be displayed?

a. When either the Utility Power Switch is pushed OFF or when the switch is ON and power has be automatically removed from one or more of the respective utility and galley buses because a fault has been detected.

b. When either the Utility Power Switch is pushed OFF or when the switch is pushed ON, and one or more utility or galley busses has loadshed.

c. Both a and b

(a)

F 5 31

Which statement accurately describes the standby bus?

a. Certain flight critical equipment receives AC power through the stanby bus

b. The standby bus provides backup DC power to the battery busses

c. The standby bus is normally powered by the main battery bus through a standby inverter

(a)

F 5 32

When autoland is engaged, system logic provides independent power sources for each of the three autopilots. Which statements are true?

a. When autoland is engaged, AC and DC buses 1, 2 and 3 are automatically isolated. AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus.

b. When autoland is engaged, AC buses 1,2 and 3 are automatically isolated. The DC isolation relays 1,2 and 3 remain closed. AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus.

c. When autoland is engaged, the split system breaker opens, providing two indipendent sources of power for autopilots A and B. The standby bus powers autopilot C.

(a)

F 5 33

If main AC busses 2 and 3 fail, the Captain's and First Officer's Transfer Busses are powered by:

a. AC Bus #1

b. AC Bus #2

c. AC Bus #3

d. AC Bus #4

(a)

F 5 34

What does the EICAS message ELEC GEN OFF 3 mean?

a. Number 3 generator no longer provides power to its respective AC bus

b. The generator control breaker is open when the engine is running

c. The synchronous bus powers AC bus 3

d. All of the above

(d)

F 5 35

During an approach using autoland, the number 2 IDG fails. AC bus 4 still powers the synchronous bus and AC bus 2. The EICAS advisory message ELEC BUS ISLN 2 is displayed. a. True

b. False

(b)

Back to menu

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

F 6 1

THe passenger oxygen system uses the same source as the cockpit crew.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 6 2

How are the passenger cabin emergency lights powered?

a. The airplane battery

b. Each light has its own battery

c. Battery packs in each passenger cabin zone

(b)

F 6 3

All crew members must wear oxygen masks when discharging a Fire Extinguisher in the flight deck.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 6 4

Crash axes are stowed behind the First Officer and at each Flight Attendant Station.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 6 5

At what cabin altitude does the passenger oxygen system automatically activate?

a. 12,000 ft

b. 14,000 ft

c. 15,000 ft

(b)

F 6 6

Slide/rafts are installed at Door 3.

a. True

b. False

(b)

F 6 7

Emergency locator transmitters transmit on which frequencies?

a. 121.5 and 342.0

b. 243.0

c. 121.5 and 243.0

(c)

F 6 8

How are emergency locator transmitters activated?

a. Switched on by the flight crew

b. Submerged in water c. Inverter

(b)

F 6 9

Flashlights are located in the passenger cabin:

a. At each flight attendant station

b. In each galley area

c. In each first aid kit

(a)

F 6 10

When do the FASTEN SEATBELT signs illuminate with the Seatbelts Sign Control in AUTO? A. The airplane descends below 10,300 ft

b. Flaps are up, or the landing gear is down

c. The landing gear lever is down

(a)

F 6 11

What action inflates the flight crew oxygen mask harness?

a. Pushing the harness inflation button

b. Pushing the NORMAL/100% selector

c. Squeezing the red release levers

(c)

F 6 12

What does the yellow cross on the flow indicator mean?

a. Oxygen is flowing

b. The oxygen mask is inoperative

c. Oxygen has been cut off

(a)

Back to menu

FIRE PROTECTION

F 7 1

a. Failure of both number 1 engine fire detector loops

b. Single loop detection exists on number 1 engine

c. No fire extinguishing capability on the number 1 engine

( a )

F 7 2

a. Overheat detection becomes inoperative

b. System reconfigures for single loop operation

c. Fire detection becomes inoperative

( b )

F 7 3

a. Three loop heat sensors

b. Two loop overheat sensors

c. Two dual loop smoke detectors

( c )

F 7 4

a. Fire warning

b. Overheat caution

c. DET FIRE OHT advisory

( c )

F 7 5

A cargo fire warning is generated when one of the dual loops in a smoke detector module senses the presence of smoke.

a. True

b. False

( b )

F 7 6

Fault monitoring of the cargo smoke detectors only occurs during a system test.

a. True

b. False

( a )

F 7 7

a. Recirculation system

b. Convection

c. Bleed asir system

( c )

F 7 8

a. Fire warning light only

b. EICAS warning, Fire warning bell, fire lights and master warning lights

c. Fire warning bell only

( b )

F 7 9

a. When the Caution & Warning Display Cancel Switch is pushed

b. When the fire signal no longer exists

c. When the Master Caution/Warning Reset Switch is pushed

( b )

F 7 10

a. Closes the APU bleed air shutoff valve

b. Disconnects the generator drive

c. Closes associated spar and engine fuel valves

( c )

F 7 11

a. Push the Fire Override Switch and pull the Engine Fire Switch

b. Rotate the Engine Fire Switch and pull

c. Push in on the Engine Fire Switch and then pull

( a )

F 7 12

a. Arms the fire extinguisher squib

b. Discharges selected fir extinguisher into respective engine nacelle

c. Closes the Engine and Spar Fuel Valves

( b )

F 7 13

a. No

b. Yes

( b )

F 7 14

a. No wait is required

b. 20 seconds

c. 30 seconds

( c )

F 7 15

a. Cannot be silenced

b. Push either Master Warning/Caution Reset Switch

c. Position the correct Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF

( b )

F 7 16

a. Nose wheel strut

b. Right body gear wheel well

c. Nose wheel well

( b )

F 7 17

a. Arms the fire extinguisher squibs for the selected compartment

b. Closes the associated Cargo heat valves and activates both recirculation fans

c. Discharges bottles A and B into FWD compartment

( a )

F 7 18

a. None

b. One

c. Two

( b )

F 7 19

a. Turns off pack 2 and all fans, arms squibs in cargo fire extinguishers, turns off aft cargo heat

b. Turns off pack 3 and both lower recirculation fans, arms squibs in cargo fire extinguishers, closes cooling air overboard valve

c. Turns off pack 3 and all fans, arms squibs in appropriate cargo fire extinguishers

( c )

F 7 20

a. True

b. False

( b )

F 7 21

a. Bottles A and B will discharge immediately, bottle C and D will discharge automatically after a brief delay or upon landing, whichever occurs first

b. Bottle A and B will discharge immediately, bottle C and D should be manually discharged one hour later or upon landing

c. Bottle A, B, C, and D will discharge immediately

( a )

1.

a. Four Bottles are discharged immediately and the remaining bottles after a brief time delay (10 minutes).

b. Four bottles are discharged immediately and the remainder after landing.

c. Bottle discharge is metered during the remainder of the flight.

( a )

2.

a. All bottles can be discharged into either the lower deck compartments or the main deck compartment.

b. Four bottles are dedicated for the lower deck and 10 bottles are dedicated to the Main Deck Cargo Compartment.

c. Four bottles only are dedicated for the lower deck; the same four bottles and 10 additional bottles can be discharged into the Main Deck Cargo Compartment.

( c )

3.

a. On initial power-up

b. Smoke Detectors circuits are continuously monitored

c. During initial power-up and during a manually initiated test

d. During a manual test only

( c )

4.

a. A lack of air to the compartment.

b. Insufficient vacuum for the cargo smoke detection system

c. A smoke detector is inoperative

( b )

5.

a. Squibs for the respective cargo fire extinguishers are armed

b. Squibs for the respective cargo fire extinguishers are armed and pack 3 and all fans are turned off

c. Squibs for fire extinguishers are armed, pack 3 and all fans and airflow and heat into the compartment is turned off

( b )

6.

a. Anytime a fault occurs, the system will reconfigure for single loop operation

b. If a sensor loop fault is detected during a test, the system reconfigures for single loop operation.

c. If a sensor loop fault is detected during a test, maintenance personnel will pull the respective circuit breaker.

( b )

7.

a. The pilots will cycle the seatbelt sign three times, then repeat again three times after a short pause.

b. A LO/HI chime will sound from the Main Deck Cargo Smoke Detection Annunciation Panel

c. The Captain will make a PA

d. The pilots should open the cockpit door and shout FIRE.

( b )

8.

a. Until the Master Reset Switch is pushed

b. Until the fire is extinguished

c. As long as the smoke condition exists

( c )

Back to menu

FLIGHT CONTROLS

F 8 1

What stabilizer trim condition exists when both Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switches are in the CUTOUT position?

a. Hydraulic power is shut off

b. Electric power is shut off

c. Stabilizer trim is 1/2 normal rate

(a)

F 8 2

Which trim is affected by the control column cutoff function?

a. Rudder

b. Stabilizer

c. Elevator

(b)

F 8 3

Which hydraulic systems power stabilizer trim?

a. One and Four

b. Two and Three

c. One and Two

(b)

F 8 4

What does the Aileron Trim Indicator display?

a. Units of aileron trim

b. Degrees of aileron trim

c. Percent of full aileron trim

(a)

F 8 5

What does rotating the rudder trim knob do?

a. Alters the rudder ratio changer

b. Activates yaw dampers in the proper direction

c. Repositions the rudder pedal neutral point

(c)

F 8 6

What does the Rudder Trim Indicator display?

a. Units of rudder trim

b. Actual rudder displacement in degrees

c. Signaled rudder displacement in percent of full trim

(a)

F 8 7

Which hydraulic systems power the trailing edge flaps?

a. 1 and 4

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

(a)

F 8 8

What is one on the required conditions for automatic speedbrake extension with the Speedbrake Lever in the ARM position?

a. Application of wheel brake pressure

b. All thrust levers near the closed position

c. Thrust Levers 1 and 3 near the closed position

(c)

F 8 9

When do the inboard and midspan leading edge flap groups extend during normal flap extension?

a. Flap Lever moved to flaps 1

b. Flap Lever moved to flaps 15

c. Flap Lever moved to flaps 25

(a)

F 8 10

What is the purpose of the flap load relief system?

a. Retract flaps from 30 to 25 and 25 to 20 when the flap airspeed limits are exceeded

b. Relieve bydraulic system pressure to flap actuators when pressure is too high

c. Ensure trailing edge flaps extend before the leading edge flaps

(a)

F 8 11

When are the outboard ailerons locked out?

a. Low airspeeds

b. High airspeeds

c. When flaps are extended

(b)

F 8 12

Why are the outboard ailerons locked out ?

a. To prevent overcontrolling the airplane at high airspeeds

b. To prevent dutch roll

c. To increase roll rates at high airspeed

(a)

F 8 13

Which statement is true when the EICAS advisory message SPEEDBRAKE AUTO is displayed? a. Autobrakes are inoperative

b. Speedbrakes can still be operated manually

c. Manual speedbrake deployment is inoperative

(b)

F 8 14

What is the function of the rudder ratio changers ?

a. Reduce maximum rudder pedal deflection with increasing airspeed

b. Reduce rudder surface response to pedal inputs with increasing airspeed

c. Increase maximum rudder surface deflection with increasing airspeed

(b)

F 8 15

How many yaw damper systems are there ?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

(b)

F 8 16

What functions do the yaw damper systems provide ?

a. Turn coordination and rudder load relief

b. Improved directional stability and turn coordination

c. Rudder load relief and improved dutch roll characteristics

(b)

F 8 17

a. 1/4 normal rate

b. 1/2 normal rate

c. Normal rate

(b)

F 8 18

Which flap drive systems have asymmetry protection ?

a. Primary and secondary

b. Primary only

c. Alternate only

(a)

F 8 19

Which of the following is indicated by the EICAS caution message STAB TRIM UNSCHD ?

a. Stabilizer movement without a trim signal

b. Failure of stabilizer to move

c. Trim at half normal rate

(a)

F 8 20

Hydraulic power for the elevators is provided by which hydraulic systems ?

a. One, two, three and four

b. Two, three and four

c. One, two and three

(a)

F 8 21

What does the EICAS advisory message RUDDER RATIO single mean ?

a. Upper and/or lower rudder ratio changer fault dctected

b. Rudder deflection is limited to 65% of maximum

c. Upper and/or lower rudder operating mechanically

(a)

F 8 22

What does the EICAS message YAW DAMPER LWR OR UPPER MEAN ?

a. The system is operating in the manual mode

b. The yaw damper test switch has been pushed

c. A yaw damper fault has been detected

(c)

F 8 23

How many spoiler panels are on each wing ?

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

(b)

F 8 24

When will the ground spoilers extend automatically after landing, with the Speedbrake Level in the DN position

a. When all Thrust Levers are retarded to idle

b. When Reverse Thrust Levers 2 and 4 are raised to the idle detent

c. When Reverse Thrust Lever 2 or 4 is raised to the idle detent

(c)

F 8 25

With the Speedbrake Lever in the ARMED position what does the EICAS message SPEEDBRAKE AUTO mean ?

a. A fault exists which could cause an inflight extension

b. The speedbrake is armed and operating normally

c. The speedbrakes are not in the commanded position

(a)

F 8 26

What powers the leading and trailing edge flaps in the primary control mode?

a. Leading edge are pneumatic, trailing edge are hydraulic

b. Both are hydraulic

c. Leading edge are hydraulic, trailing edge are pneumatic

(a)

F 8 27

How are the flaps powered in the secondary control mode ?

a. Hydraulically

b. Electrically

c. Pneumatically

(b)

F 8 28

What happens when moving the Flap Lever from the Flaps 1 to Flaps 5 position ?

a. Trailing edge flaps extend to flaps 5 and outboard leading edge flap groups extend

b. Trailing edge flaps extend to Flaps 5

c. Leading edge flap groups 3 extend

(a)

F 8 29

What occurs when the Alternate Stabilizer Trim Switches are used with any number of autopilots engaged ?

a. The artopilots disengage

b. Alternate Stabilizer Trim Switches inhibited

c. Alternate Stabilizer Trim Switches override autopilot trim inputs

(c)

F 8 30

What will happen when the Stabilizer Trim Switches on the control wheels are actuated with multiple autopilots engaged ?

a. The autopilots disengage and the EICAS advisory message STAB TRIM UNSCHD is displayed b. Stabilizer Trim Switches are inhibited

c. Stabilizer Trim Switches override autopilot trim inputs, autopilot will not disengage and the EICAS advisory message STAB TRIM UNSCHD is displayed

(b)

F 8 31

What occurs when the Stabilizer Trim Switches on the control wheel are actuated with a single autopilot engaged ?

a. The autopilot will disengage and the stabilizer will trim in the respective direction

b. Stabilizer Trim Switches are inhibited

c. Stabilizer Trim Switches will override autopilot trim commands but will not cause disengagement (a)

F 8 32

What does the EICAS advisory message FLAPS PRIMARY mean ?

a. Flap operation is in the alternate control mode

b. One or more flap group is in the secondary control mode

c. A leading edge flap asymmetry condition exists

(b)

F 8 33

What is the maximum flap extension available when using the Alternate Flaps System ?

a. 20

b. 25

c. 30

(b)

F 8 34

What is the purpose of the Flap Gate at the Flaps 20 position ?

a. Prevents inadvertent retraction of flaps past go around flaps setting

b. Prevents inadvertent flap movement out of the maneuvering flaps range

c. Prevents inadvertent retraction of remaining leading edge flap groups

(a)

Back to menu

FUEL

F 10 1

If the flow bar is not in view and the valve light is extinguished on a Fuel Crossfeed Valve Switch, what is the position of the crossfeed valve?

a. Switch is off and valve is closed

b. Switch is off and valve is open

c. Switch is on and valve is closed

(a)

F 10 2

Can main tank 2 AFT fuel pump be commanded off if the APU is running and the AC system is powered?

a. Yes, by pushing the switch off so the ON indecation is no longer visible

b. Yes, the DC pump will provide fuel to the APU

c. No, pump operates regardless of switch position

(c)

F 10 3

What is the indication if a main fuel pump fails?

a. EICAS message, PRESS light illuminated, ON out of view

b. EICAS message, PRESS light illuminated, ON in view

c. No EICAS message and a blank switch

(b)

F 10 4

What is the indication if the Center Wing Tank Pump switches are off and there is no fuel in the tank?

a. EICAS message with PRESS illuminated

b. EICAS message only

c. No EICAS message ane PRESS extinguished

(c)

F 10 5

What pump supplies fuel to the APU after AC power has been established?

a. DC posered boost pump

b. Main tank 2 AFT boost pump

c. Main Tank 3 AFT boost pump

(b)

F 10 6

What does the EICAS caution message FUEL QTY LOW mean?

a. The quantity in all main tanks is below 7,000 lbs.(3,200 kg.)

b. The quantity in all main tanks is below 2,000 lbs. (900 kg.)

c. The quantity in any main tank is below 2,000 lbs. (900 kg.)

(c)

F 10 7

When is the EICAS advisory X FEED CONFIG displayed?

a. When crossfeeds 1 and/or 4 are closed prior to FUEL TANK/ENG message

b. When crossfeed 2 or 3 is closed after the flaps are retracted

c. Both a and b

(c)

F 10 8

With the Horizontal Stabilizer Fuel tank empty, or not installed (customer) configuration), what does the EICAS caution FUEL AUTO MGMT mean?

a. Both fuel jettison cards have failed

b. Both fuel management cards have failed

c. One fuel management card has failed

(b)

F 10 9

When does jettison begin, after arming jettison logic?

a. After setting FUEL TO REMAIN

b. After time to jettison has been calculated

c. After pushing either nozzle switch on

(c)

F 10 10

When does the EICAS caution message FUEL JETT SYS display?

a. When total fuel decreases to less than the selected fuel to remain

b. When both fuel jettison control systems fail

c. When both nozzles are open and the airplane is on the ground

d. Both a and b

(d)

F 10 11

When will the FMC message "FUEL DISAGREE - PROG 2/2" be displayed?

a. When the difference in fuel quantity between tanks 2 and 3 is 6000 lbs. (2700 Kgs)

b. When a difference of 9000 lbs (4080 Kgs.) or more exists between TOTALIZER and CALCULATED fuel quantity

c. When the difference in fuel quantity between tanks 1 and 4 is 3000 lbs. (1300 Kgs.)

(b)

Back to menu

HYDRAULICS

F 11 1

With the Engine Pump Switch on, when will the number one engine pump produce pressure? a. When the number one system pressure is low

b. When the number one engine rotates

c. When operating the flaps

d. Number one Demand pump low output pressure

(b)

F 11 2

With the Demand Pump selector in AUTO, when will a hydraulic demand pump operate?

a. Any time the gear the down

b. When the respective engien pump output pressure is low

c. Only when operating the thrust reversers

(b)

F 11 3

Which is correct when the EICAS message HYD PRESS DEM is displayed with the Demand Pump Selector in AUTO?

a. Pump operating with full hydraulic pressure

b. Pump commanded to operate, pump output pressure is low

c. Pump operating but heavy hydraulic load items (such as flaps and/or landing gear) are operating

(b)

F 11 4

Which condition will automatically command hydraulic Demand Pumps one and four to operate?

a. Thrust reverser actuation

b. Flap operation

c. Braking

(b)

F 11 5

Which hydraulic system powers the Alternate Brakes and the Body Gear Steering System?

a. System number one

b. System number two

c. System number three

d. System number four

(a)

F 11 6

How does pulling an Engine Fire Switch affect the hydraulic system?

a. Does not affect the hydraulic system

b. Disconnects the engine hydraulic pump, requiring maintenance reset

c. Shuts off fluid to and depressurizes the Engine Driven Pump

(c)

F 11 7

Which hydraulic systems power the Auto Pilot Servos?

a. One, two and three

b. One, two and four

c. Two, three and four

(a)

F 11 8

What action will shutoff the flow of hydraulic fluid to the number one Engine Driven Pump?

a. Pulling the number one engine fire switch

b. Placing the number one FUEL CONTROL switch in CUTOFF

c. Turning off the number one engine pump

(a)

F 11 9

What indicates excessive fluid temperature?

a. An illuminated system pressure light

b. An illuminated pump overheat light

c. The EICAS message HYD OVHT SYS

(c)

F 11 10

What causes the EICAS message HYD PRESS DEM 4 to be displayed?

a. Demand Pump selector is in the AUX position after Engine 4 start

b. Engine Driven Pump output preserve is low

c. Demand Pump pressure is high

(a)

F 11 11

What conditions will cause the Demand Pumps to operate with the selector in the AUTO position?

a. Respective Engine Driven Pump output pressure is low or respective Fuel Control Switch in CUTOFF

b. Only in the air and the respective Engine Driven Pump output pressure is low or respective low system quantity

c. Anytime flaps are out of up or respective high system temperature

(a)

F 11 12

When will the AUX pump in system 4 run with the selector in the AUX position?

a. Only on the ground, with respective engine running

b. Only on the ground, with respective engine not running

c. In the air, with respective engine not running

(b)

F 11 13

What causes the EICAS message HYD PRESS DEM to remain displayed after the selector has been placed in the ON position?

a. The automatic control function has failed

b. The Demand Pump has failed

c. The Demand Pump is operating

(b)

F 11 14

The hydraulic Demand Pump in system 4 is disabled when the system 4 Demand Pump Selector is in the AUX position.

a. True

b. False

(a)

F 11 15

Hydraulic system one powers what systems?

a. Wing gear actuation

b. Nose and body gear actuation

c. Normal brakes

(b)

F 11 16

With a hydraulic system one failure, what capability is lost?

a. Lowering the wing gear

b. Steering

c. Setting the parking brakes

(b)

Back to menu

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

F 9 1

a. At all times

b. Airplane between 84 degrees N and 60 degrees S

c. Airplane between 73 degrees N and 60 degrees S, with the HDG switch in NORM

c

F 9 2

a. NAV

b. IRS

c. AIR DATA

b

F 9 3

a. Chronograph

b. Elapsed Time

c. GMT

a

F 9 4

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. Green

c

F 9 5

a. Mode Control Panel only

b. NDs, PFDs and Mode Control Panel

c. PFDs only

b

F 9 6

a. MAP

b. VOR

c. APP

d. Plan

d

F 9 7

a. Map, Map centered, VOR, APP

b. Map and Plan

c. Map only

a

F 9 8

a. Flight Director Flag in the PFD

b. Command bars out of view

c. Caution and warning display annunciation

d. Both a and b

d

F 9 9

a. True North

b. Magnetic North

c. Magnetic Track

a

F 9 10

a. Heading reference failure

b. Heading is referenced to magnetic during descent

c. Heading is referenced to true during descent

c

F 9 11

a. The flaps are out of up

b. At glide slope capture

c. Anytime the airplane approaches Vmin

a

Back to menu

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS AND NAVIGATION

F 14 1

a. 18

b. 10

c. 20

a

F 14 2

During high latitude alignment, IRS mode selectors must remain in ALIGN for:

a. 17 seconds

b. 15 minutes

c. 17 minutes

c

F 14 3

a. True

b. False

a

F 14 4

a. Up to four altitudes, winds, and temperatures per waypoint

b. Up to four altitudes and winds per route

c. When to 120 altitudes and winds per route

a

F 14 5

a. Autopilot engaged and either localizer or glide slope captured

b. Flight Director ON, autopilot not engaged, either localizer or glideslope captured, and the airplane is below 500 feet radio altitude

c. Either a or b

c

F 14 6

a. The Fix page

b. INTC CRS line/boxes, and ABEAM PTS. and RTE COPY. prompts

c. Hold PPOS. prompt

b

F 14 7

a. A navigation data base

b. A performance data base

c. Both a and b

c

F 14 8

a. True

b. False

a

F 14 9

a. All IRS's enter align mode

b. All IRS's enter the navigation mode

c. Any IRS enters navigation mode

b

F 14 10

a. Yes-But only the hour

b. Yes-But only the minytes

c. No

a

F 14 11

a. Pushing NEXT PAGE twice

b. Pushing RTE 2, then activating and executing

c. Pushing RTE 2 LEGS, then activating and executing

d. Either b or c

d

F 14 12

a. Enter a new destination

b. Enter a new origin

c. Change the active data base date d. Either b or c

d

F 14 13

a. REF NAV DATA

b. IRS PROGRESS

c. POS REF

c

F 14 14

a. The "SET IRS POS" line is blanked

b. The "LAST POS" line is blanked

c. Both "SET IRS POS" and "LAST POS" are blanked

a

F 14 15

a. Entry required

b. Entry optional

c. Both a and b

a

F 14 16

a. 0

b. 1000

c. 9999

a

F 14 17

a. FIC page

b. RTE page

c. LEGS page

c

F 14 18

a. CLB, CRZ, or DES page depending on where in the flight the new routing is required

b. PROG or RTE page

c. LEGS or RTE page

c

F 14 19

a. Flashing ND symbology

b. A dashed white line on the NAV Display

c. An FMC message in the FMS-CDU scratch pad

c

F 14 20

a. The FMC's must tune the ILS's

b. The flight crew must tune the ILS's

c. The FMC's can tune the ILS's automatically, or the flight crew can tune the ILS's manually

c

F 14 21

a. A message is displayed in the scratch pad for more than 10 seconds

b. The FMS-CDU display has failed and not automatically switched to standby navigation

c. The FMS-CDU is displaying data not related to the active leg or current performance mode

c

F 14 22

a. The FMC will not navigate without updating

b. The FMC will continue to navigate using IRS inputs

c. The FMC will navigate using VOR/VOR bearing

b

Back to menu

NAVIGATION

F 9 12

a. Navigation display, MAP mode

b. Navigaiton display, VOR mode

c. Both a and b

b

F 9 13

a. Active route, track and heading

b. All navaids within the range selected

c. Both a and b

a

F 9 14

With the ND in Map mode, what additional informaiton is displayed when the STA switch is pushed on ?

a. Location of appropriate navaids in the data base

b. ETA to Navaids

c. Frequency of navaids

a

F 9 15

a. Location of all airports in the data base

b. Location of all Navaids

c. ETA at destination airport on OFF PATH DES page

a

F 9 16

a. Location of all waypoints in the data base ( at or below 40nm range )

b. Location of all navaids in the data base

c. Frequencies of all radio aids within 40nm

a

F 9 17

a. White waypoint symbol

b. Blue waypoint symbol

c. Magenta waypoint symbol

c

F 9 18

a. 40 nautical miles

b. 32.5 nautical miles

c. 22.3 natical miles

b

F 9 19

a. 0835.4Z

b. 0338Z

c. 1000Z

a

Back to menu

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

F 12 1

a. Only the Captain's and First Officer's windshields

b. Only the Captain's and First Officer's side windows

c. All flight deck windows

a

F 12 2

a. The Wing Anti-ice Switch must be pushed OFF

b. The Wing Anti-ice Switch must be pushed ON

c. The bleed duct on the respective side must be isolated from bleed air sources

c

F 12 3

a. When any engine is operating

b. When the airplane is airborne

c. When Nacelle Anti-ice Switch is selected ON

b

F 12 4

a. True

b. False

b

F 12 5

a. Whenever visible moisture is present and the OAT is at or below 10 degrees C (50 degrees F)

b. Whenever ice or snow has accmulated on the wings

c. Never - wing anti-ice is inhibited on the ground by air/ground logic

c

F 12 6

a. Conditioned air is directed to the First Officer's windshield

b. Heated air is directed to the First Officer's windshield

c. Conditioned air is directed to the First Officer's windshield and side windows

a

F 12 7

a. A heater in the FIrst Officer's pitot static probe is not powered

b. The port and starboard forward observer's probes are in an overheat condition

c. The First Officer's pitot static probe is powered on the ground

a

F 12 8

a. The nacelle anti-ice valves open

b. NAI is displayed in green next to the N1 indications on the primary EICAS display

c. The EEC's adjust idle as required

d. All the above

d

F 12 9

a. The First Officer's side window heat is inoperative or in an overheat condition

b. The First Officer's windshield heat is inoperative or in an overheat condition

c. The First Officer's windshield and side window heat is inoperative or in an overheat condition

b

F 12 10

a. The left TAT probe is being heated on the ground

b. A heater in the left TAT prove is not powered in flight

c. Both a and b

c

F 12 11

a. The EICAS advisory message NAI VALVE 1 will be displayed

b. The engine 1 nacelle anti-ice VALVE light will remain illuminated

c. Both a and b

a

F 12 12

a. True

b. False

b

F 12 13

a. True

b. False

a

F 12 14

a. Wing anti-ice is operating on the ground

b. There is a disagreement between the Wing Anti-ice Switch and valve position

c. Wing or nacelle anti-ice is on and total air temperature is greater than 12 degrees C

b

F 12 15

a. Power to the probe is lost of a heater fails

b. TAT probe is not being powered on the ground

c. There is a disagreement between the switch and valve position

a

F 12 16

a. True

b. False

b

Back to menu

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

F 13 1

a. System 1 for wing gear, System 4 for body and nose gear

b. System 1 for body and nose gear, System 4 for wing gear

c. System 1 for body gear, System 4 for wing and nose gear

b

F 13 2

a. Stop the airplane after landing when brakes are applied

b. Set and hold the parking brake

c. Either a or b

b

F 13 3

a. System 1

b. System 4

c. System 3

a

F 13 4

a. True

b. False

b

F 13 5

a. Parking brake is set and takeoff thrust is selected on engines 2 or 3

b. Parking brake is set and takeoff thrust is selected on engine 2 and 3

c. Parking brake is not set and the engines are shutdown

a

F 13 6

a. Nose gear is tilted

b. Wheel brakes are applied

c. Lever latch is overridden

b

F 13 7

a. Wheel brake cooling fans are shut down

b. Landing gear system is depressurized

c. Fasten Seatbelts/No Smoking signs are extinguished

b

F 13 8

a. Gear uplocks

b. Locked door structure

c. Main gear strut locks

a

F 13 9

a. When brake temperature is 4 units or greater

b. When brake temperature is 5 units or greater

c. When brake temperature is 3 units or greater

b

F 13 10

a. AUTOBRAKES light on

b. AUTOBRAKES advisory message displayed

c. AUTOBRAKES memo message displayed

c

F 13 11

a. True

b. False

a

F 13 12

a. To a complete stop

b. Until 20 Knots

c. Until 30 Knots

a

F 13 13

a. Speed less than 85 knots

b. Thrust lever in reverse

c. Thrust levers closed

c

F 13 14

a. Manual braking

b. Retarding the throttles

c. Retracting the flaps

a

F 13 15

a. The selector is in the DISARM position, autobrakes are inoperative, or autobrakes are armed when selected OFF

b. The selector is in the OFF position

c. The autobrakes system is operating, but a fault is detected

a

F 13 16

a. OFF

b. DISARM

c. Position selected for landing

b

F 13 17

a. Automatically

b. Manually

c. Electrically

a

F 13 18

a. Antiskid is completely inoperative

b. A fault has been detected in the active antiskid system, either normal or alternate

c. The Brake Torque Limiter has failed, either normal or alternate

b

F 13 19

a. Alternate brake system only

b. Normal brake system only

c. Both alternate and normal brake systems

b

F 13 20

a. The gear is not tilted or body gear are not centered

b. The gear is tilted and the body gear is centered

c. The nose wheel is not centered

a

F 13 21

a. Pushing the lever lock override switch

b. Pulling the lever lock override handle

c. Pulling the lever lock override trigger

a

F 13 22

a. Provides hydraulic pressure for tilting each main gear

b. Prevents moving the gear lever to UP on the ground or raising the gear in flight if any main gear is not tilted or either body gear is not centered.

c. Prevents moving the gear lever to DN when the main gear are not tilted

b

F 13 23

a. System 4

b. System 1

c. System 2

a

F 13 24

a. System 3

b. System 1 or 2

c. System 4

b

F 13 25

a. When System 4 hydraulic pressure is low

b. When the antiskid controller detects a fault in the normal brakes

c. When selecting the MAX AUTO autobrake setting

a

F 13 26

a. 250 Knots - .75 Mach

b. 270 Knots - .82 Mach

c. 320 Knots - .82 Mach

b

F 13 27

a. 10 seconds

b. 30 seconds

c. Continuously

a

F 13 28

a. 270 Knots, .82 Mach

b. 320 Knots, .82 Mach

c. 250 Knots, .75 Mach

b

F 13 29

a. Tiller inputs override rudder inputs

b. Rudder pedal inputs override tiller inputs

c. Inputs are combined

a

F 13 30

a. As speed increases through 20 Knots

b. As speed increases through 15 Knots

c. As speed decreases through 15 Knots

a

F 13 31

a. As speed decreases through 15 Knots

b. As speed decreases through 20 Knots

c. As speed increases through 15 Knots

a

F 13 32

a. Hydraulic power

b. Electrical power

c. Gravity

c

F 13 33

a. True

b. False

a

F 13 34

a. Brakes are applied manually, any thrust lever is advanced or speed brakes are stowed

b. Thrust Reverse Levers 1 and 4 are at the idle detent

c. A new deceleration rate is selected with speed brakes deployed

a

F 13 35

a. True

b. False

a

F 13 36

a. The gear is down and locked

b. The gear position disagrees with Landing Gear Lever position

c. For 10 seconds after the gear are up and locked

b

F 13 37

a. Antiskid is inoperative on all 16 wheels

b. Antiskid is operating, but at reduced efficiency

c. Antiskid is operating normally but the airplane is stopped

a

F 13 38

a. Loss of Hydraulic System 1

b. Loss of Hydraulic System 4

c. Loss of Hydraulic System 2

b

Back to menu

PNEUMATICS

F 15 1

With the Engine Bleed Air Switch OFF, nacelle anti-ice not selected on, and thrust lever not in reverse range, how are the Engine Bleed Air Valve, PRV, and HP Bleed Valve configured?

a. Engine Bleed Air Valve closed, PRV closed, HP Bleed Valve closed

b. Engine Bleed Air Valve closed, PRV opening and closing to regulate pressure, HP Bleed Valve closed

c. Engine Bleed Air Valve closed, PRV opening and closing to regulate pressure, HP Bleed Valve open during low thrust conditions

a

F 15 2

What source normally supplies engine bleed air during low thrust conditions?

a. IP Bleed

b. HP Bleed

c. Both a and b

b

F 15 3

Pushing the APU Bleed Air Switch ON opens the APU bleed isolation valve, with the APU running.

a. True

b. False

a

F 15 4

What does the EICAS advisory message . BLEED 1 OFF mean?

a. One engine bleed valve is closed

b. The engine 1 bleed valve is closed with the engine running

c. All engine bleed valves are closed

b

F 15 5

What is bleed air used for?

a. Air conditioning

b. Leading edge flap operation

c. Lower cargo smoke detection

d. All the above

d

F 15 6

At high engine power settings, which engine compressor section furnishes bleed air for the pneumatic system?

a. The intermediate pressure section

b. The high pressure section

c. The engine fan section

a

F 15 7

Where is pneumatic duct pressure displayed?

a. On the primary EICAS display

b. On the captain's lower instrument panel

c. On the secondary EICAS display with ECS synoptic selected

d. Both a and c

d

F 15 8

When will the APU bleed valve open?

a. When the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING is displayed

b. When the APU Bleed Air Switch is ON

c. Both a and b

c

F 15 9

What are the indications if an HP Bleed Valve fails to close when engine thrust is increased? a. EICAS advisory message BLEED

b. EICAS advisory message . BLEED OFF

c. Engine SYS FAULT light

d. Both a and c

d

F 15 10

Closing the right isolation valve will prevent bleed air from reaching hydraulic demand pump 4.

a. True

b. False

b

F 15 11

When is the EICAS advisory message BLEED ISLN displayed.

a. Bleed isolation switch and valve position disagree

b. Bleed air leak is detected along the left or right duct sections

c. All isolation valves have malfunctioned

a

F 15 12

When is the EICAS advisory message BLEED displayed and the engine bleed air system fault light illuminated?

a. Engine bleed air overpressure occurs or the HP bleed valve or PRV fail to close when commanded

b. A bleed duct leak is detected

c. Bleed isolation valves have malfunctioned

a

F 15 13

The PRV will open with the Engine Bleed Air Switch OFF:

a. Never

b. When bleed air powered hydraulic demand pumps are selected ON, provided the HP bleed valve is not failed open, the start valve is closed, and there is not a prior or present bleed air overheat

c. When nacelle anti-ice is selected ON

d. When nacelle anti-ice is selected ON, provided the HP Bleed valve is not failed open, start valve is closed, there is not a prior or present bleed air overheat

d

Back to menu

POWER PLANT

F 16 1

a. Low pressure

b. Intermediate pressure

c. High pressure

a

F 16 2

a. Indication changes color to amber

b. Indication remains white for takeoff

c. Indication changes color to red

c

F 16 3

a. Open

b. In transit

c. Closed

a

F 16 4

a. Actual thrust value

b. Commanded thrust value

c. Maximum rated thrust for takeoff

b

F 16 5

a. Indication changes color to amber

b. Indication changes color to red

c. Indication flashes repeatedly

b

F 16 6

a. Engine 2 failure imminent

b. Engine 2 oil filter bypassed

c. Engine 2 approaching bypass condition

c

F 16 7

a. #1 thrust reverser can be expected to operate normally

b. #1 thrust reverser is armed

c. #1 thrust reverser may not deploy

a

F 16 8

a. ENG1 RPM LIM

b. ENG1 LOW IDLE

c. ENG1 EEC MODE

c

F 16 9

a. Green

b. Amber

c. Magenta

a

F 16 10

a. Unlocked or in thansit

b. Fully extended

c. Stowed and locked

a

F 16 11

a. When the Thrust Levers are at the closed position

b. When ground speed is below 80 knots

c. When the body gear are firmly on the runway

a

F 16 12

a. They are green

b. They are amber

c. They are not displayed

c

F 16 13

a. The spar valve is open with fuel onboard

b. The engine fuel valve is not open

c. The engine fuel valve or spar valve is not in the commanded position

c

F 16 14

a. amber

b. red

c. magenta

c

F 16 15

a. Derate one takeoff thrust

b. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust with derate one selected

c. Climb derate one will be selected after takeoff

b

F 16 16

a. EGT increasing

b. N2 increasing

c. N1 increasing

b

F 16 17

a. 20% N2 RPM

b. Max motoring N2 RPM

c. Fuel-on-command indicator

c

F 16 18

a. Start valve is open

b. Start valve is closed

c. Starter cutout has occurred

a

F 16 19

a. 40% N2

b. 50% N2

c. 55% N2

b

Back to menu

WARNING SYSTEMS

F 17 1

a. Voice

b. Beeper

c. Siren or Bell

b

F 17 2

a. Pushing the Next Page Switch

b. Pushing the Recall Switch

c. Pushing the Cancel Switch

c

F 17 3

a. Fire bell and Master Warning Lights

b. Beeper and Master Caution Lights

c. Master Warning and Caution Light and EICAS Warning and Caution Messages

b

F 17 4

a. Fuel temperature and quantity indicaitons

b. Hydraulic quantity, oxygen quantity, and status messages

c. Engine oil temperature and quantity indications

b

F 17 5

a. New status message exists

b. Status Display Switch was pushed

c. Status Display Switch is inoperative

a

F 17 6

a. Any time a new status message exists

b. Any time two or more engines are shut down

c. Only when the Status Display Switch is pushed

c

F 17 7

a. Warning, caution, and advisory messages are no longer displayed

b. Caution and advisory messages are no longer displayed

c. The most recent message is no longer displayed

b

F 17 8

a. Pushing the Status Display Switch

b. Pushing the Cancel Switch

c. Pushing the Secondary Engine Display Switch

a

F 17 9

a. Pushing the Cancel Switch

b. Pushing the Next Page Switch

c. Pushing the Status Displayj Switch

c

F 17 10

a. Indications for engines 1 and 2 are blanked

b. The center EIU controls both EICAS displays

c. The upper CRT is blanked

b

F 17 11

a. Barometric descent rate is severe

b. Barometric descent rate is excessive

c. Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around

b

F 17 12

a. Yes

b. No

b

F 17 13

What does the GPWS voice annunciation "TERRAIN" mean?

a. Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around

b. Radio altitude descent rate has not been reduced after the GPWS voice annunciaiton "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" sounds twice

3. Radio altitude descent rate is excessive

c

F 17 14

a. Push the Glideslpe Inhibit Switch

b. Push a Master Warning/Caution Reset Switch

c. Push the Cancel Switch

a

F 17 15

a. A condition which might affect airplane dispatch

b. The current state of a certain selected normal condition

c. A condition which might soon lead to a non-normal condition and an alert message

b

F 17 16

a. Engine 2 or 3 thrust in the takeoff range

b. Engine 2 or 3 Thrust Lever advanced to a takeoff position

c. Nose gear centered

a

F 17 17

a. Radio altitude less than 1500 feet with flaps out of UP

b. Radio altitude less than 800 feet with any thrust lever at idle thrust setting

c. Flaps at a setting of 20 or greater

b

F 17 18

a. True

b. False

b

F 17 19

a. True

b. False

a

F 17 20

a. Airspeed exceeds the high-speed buffet airspleed

b. Airspeed exceeds the flap limit, gear limit, or Vmo/Mmo, whichever is lowest

c. Airspeed exceeds Vmo/Mmo any phase of flight

c

F 17 21

a. "WINDSHEAR" is repeated as long as the windshear condition is detected

b. "WINDSHEAR" is repeated until the escape maneuver is initiated

c. "WINDSHEAR" is repeated three times

c

F17 xx

a. The GPWS voice annunciation "TOO LOW GEAR", the Ground Proximity Light, and the "CONFIG GEAR" EICAS message.

b. The GPWS voice annunciation "TOO LOW GEAR"

c. The siren, when "CONFIG GEAR" EICAS message is displayed.

d. b. and c. above

d

F17 xx

a. 2 systems are installed, if either detects a stall, stickshaker will vibrate both control colums to provide a tactile warning.

b. 2 systems are installed, if both detect a stall, stickshaker will vibrate both control colums to provide a tactile warning.

c. 2 systems are installed, if both detect a stall, a stall warning horn shall sound and stickshaker will vibrate both control colums to provide a tactile warning.

a

F17 xx

a. Left Radio Altimeter, Left IRU, Left Angle of Attack indicator.

b. Left Radio Altimeter, Left IRU, Left ILS receiver, Left EFIS Control Panel, Left and center FCU, CMC bus, an operating ADC, an operating Stall Warning System, and the Landing Gear Lever.

c. Left Radio Altimeter, Left IRU, Left ILS receiver, Left EFIS Control Panel, Left and center FCU, CMC bus, Left ADC, Left Stall Warning System, and the Landing Gear Lever.

b

F17 xx

a. CONFIG Warnings have failed and may be in error.

b. The takeoff warning system failed or input to the EIU failed.

c. CONFIG messages may not be correct, if CONFIG messages are displayed at the time when CONFIG WARN SY is displayed.

d. b. and c. above

d

Back to menu

Additional questions

ELECTRICAL

1. (10.10.3)

When the Utility Off light illuminated, a protection circuit will automatically close one or more Electrical Control Units.

1. True
2. False

2. (10.20.02)

a) Eicas messages: DRIVE DISC, ELEC GEN OFF and ELEC DRIVE will be displayed.

b) Eicas messages: ELEC DRIVE and ELEC GEN OFF will be displayed and DRIVE DISC message inhibited

c) Eicas messages' DRIVE DISC and ELEC GEN OFF will be displayed and ELEC DRIVE message inhibited.

3. (10.20.02)

ELEC AC BUS message will be inhibited when ELEC GENOFF is displayed with it's respective engine running.

1. True
2. False

4. (10.20.04)

a) To automatically shed the load if only one External Power Switch is pushed On.

b) To automatically close when the second External Power Switch is pushed On, balancing the load on both buses.

c-). To automatically open when the second External Power Switch is pushed On, and close when one External Power source is disconnected.

5. ( 10.10.02 )

a) If power in an AC bus becomes unsynchronized, the respective Bus Tie -Breaker closes automatically to allow the synchronized bus powering the affected one.

b-) When an Integrated Drive Generator unable to produce the acceptable power for the AC bus, the respective Generator Control Breaker opens and the Bus Tie Breaker closes to supply the bus with the synchronized power.

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

1. (11.20.02 )

Is it possible to open an Upper Deck Door when Eicas caution message DOOR U/D FLT LK is displayed and the Blue Door Ground Mode light above the affected door is illuminated?

a) No

b) Yes, when Cabin Differential Pressure is low.

2. (11.20.03)

Which statement is correct concerning Passenger Door 3?

a) The Offwing Escape Slide can be manually inflated.

b) Door 3 ramp/slide can be used as a floating device during a ditching situation

3. (10.20.04A)

a) The Passenger Oxygen System can be activated either by automatic pressure sensing when Cabin Altitude reaches 14,000 feet or by manually switching Passenger Oxygen Switch to On.

b) The oxygen flow to each mask can not be turned off by the Cabin Attendant

4. (10.20.10)

With the Emergency Evacuation Signal Switch in Off position, operation of Evacuation Signal Command Switch at the Door 2L will activate the system at all stations.

a) True

b) False

5. (10.20.12)

a) Water and Halon 1211 Fire Extinguishers are located in some areas in the passenger cabin

b) All Flight Crew members must wear Oxygen Mask at 100% oxygen with Emergency selected every time a fire extinguisher is to be discharged in the Flight Deck area.

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